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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Design Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Project Managers in ensuring design quality by examining quality objectives, coordinating functional and non-functional requirements, applying lessons learned, engaging stakeholders, applying QMS in design feedback, participating in constructability reviews, and implementing quality controls in design. It also evaluates the skills of Construction Designers in demonstrating quality during the monitoring of the design and in the documentation process.
Topic 2	Construction Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in implementing quality controls, managing nonconformances, implementing changes, monitoring and measuring quality, managing documentation, and facilitating continuous improvement. It also evaluates the skills of Construction Site Managers in ensuring effective monitoring and management of the construction site, promoting safety, and maintaining quality standards throughout the construction process.
Topic 3	Closeout Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in managing project records, reporting on quality performance, conducting lessons learned sessions, and ensuring the completion of all quality-related activities. It also focuses on the skills of Construction Project Managers in finalizing the project and ensuring a successful handover.
Topic 4	Planning Phase: This section measures the skills of Construction Quality Engineers in strategic quality planning, encompassing project quality strategy development, integration of sustainable practices, alignment of the quality plan with other project plans, and adherence to industry standards and quality management systems. Also measures the skills of Construction Planners in understanding how to ensure the team is appropriately trained for quality, how to use third-party services and measurement systems, how to assess quality tools, and how to design a plan to audit quality effectively.

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AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Sample Questions (Q126-Q131):

NEW QUESTION # 126
An established patient suffering from migraines without aura, no mention of intractable migraine, and no mention of status migrainosus, is seen by his ophthalmologist who conducts a visual field examination of both eyes. The examination was accomplished plotting four isopters utilizing the Goldmann perimeter testing method. The patient and requesting physician receive the interpretation and report on the same date of service.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for this encounter?

A. 92081, G43.009
B. 92082, G43.019
C. 92082, G43.009
D. 92083, G43.019

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Procedure: Visual field examination of both eyes using Goldmann perimeter testing with four isopters.
* CPT Code:
* 92082: This code is for visual field examination with intermediate examination.
* ICD-10-CM Code:
* G43.009: Migraine without aura, not intractable, without status migrainosus.
* Code Selection Justification: The visual field exam method and complexity align with 92082. The patient's diagnosis of non-intractable migraine without aura is coded as G43.009.
References:
* AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)

NEW QUESTION # 127

Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 874276
What E/M code is reported?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).
* History:
* The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.
* Examination:
* The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).
* Medical Decision Making:
* The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.
Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.
Why other options are incorrect:
* 99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.
* 99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn't support this level of service.
References:
* CPT Codes 99281-99285: Emergency department visits
* 1995 and 1997 Documentation Guidelines for Evaluation and Management Services: These guidelines provide detailed criteria for selecting the appropriate E/M code based on history, examination, and MDM.
* AAPC Coder's Desk Reference: This resource provides detailed information on coding guidelines and procedures.

NEW QUESTION # 128
The CPTcode book provides full descriptions of medical procedures, with some descriptions requiring the use of a semicolon (;) to distinguish among closely related procedures.
What is the full description of CPTcode 35860?

A. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; extremity
B. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck and/or extremity
C. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; excluding extremity
D. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the CPTcode book, code 35860 describes an "Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection" in multiple areas, specifically including the neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity. This code is used when a surgeon explores these areas postoperatively to locate and address complications such as bleeding, clots, or infections.
B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fully encompass all the areas listed in the actual description of CPT code 35860, which includes all four regions (neck, chest, abdomen, and extremity).
Thus, the correct answer is A. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity.

NEW QUESTION # 129
Which one of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the code for diabetes is never sequenced first?

A. If the patient is being treated for type 2 diabetes
B. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes
C. If the patient has hyperglycemia that Is not responding to medication
D. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction

Answer: D

Explanation:
When a patient experiences an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction, the primary reason for the encounter would be the malfunction itself, which is coded first. The resulting hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia due to the pump failure is a secondary condition. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the code for the mechanical complication of the pump (T85.633-) is sequenced first, followed by a code for the diabetes with complication (E11.65 for type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia).References: ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 19: Injury, Poisoning and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes (S00-T88), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.

NEW QUESTION # 130
A 60-year-old male has three-vessel disease and supraventricular tachycardia which has been refractory to other management. He previously had pacemaker placement and stenting of LAD coronary artery stenosis, which has failed to solve the problem. He will undergo CABG with autologous saphenous vein and an extensive modified MAZE procedure to treat the tachycardia.
He is brought to the cardiac OR and placed in the supine position on the OR table. He is prepped and draped, and adequate endotracheal anesthesia is assured. A median sternotomy incision is made and cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. The endoscope is used to harvest an adequate length of saphenous vein from his left leg.
This is uneventful and bleeding is easily controlled. The vein graft is prepared and cut to the appropriate lengths for anastomosis. Two bypasses are performed: one to the circumflex and another to the obtuse marginal. The left internal mammary is then freed up and it is anastomosed to the ramus, the first diagonal, and the LAD. An extensive maze procedure is then performed and the patient is weaned from bypass. At this point, the sternum is closed with wires and the skin is reapproximated with staples. The patient tolerated the procedure without difficulty and was taken to the PACU.
Choose the procedure codes for this surgery.

A. 33533, 33257, 33519, 33508
B. 33535, 33259 51, 33519-51, 33508-51
C. 33535, 33259, 33519, 33508
D. 33533, 33257-51, 33519-51, 33508-51

Answer: B

Explanation:
The CABG procedure involved multiple bypasses, with the use of autologous saphenous vein grafts and the left internal mammary artery, along with an extensive modified MAZE procedure. CPTcode 33535 describes a coronary artery bypass using arterial grafts, including at least three coronary artery bypasses.
CPTcode 33259-51 is for the MAZE procedure for supraventricular tachycardia, with the -51 modifier indicating multiple procedures. CPTcode 33519-51 is for an additional vein graft, and CPTcode 33508-
51 describes the endoscopic harvesting of the vein.
References:
* AMA's CPTProfessional Edition (current year), Codes 33535, 33259-51, 33519-51, 33508-51

NEW QUESTION # 131
......

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BRAINDUMPS CPC DOWNLOADS & CPC RELIABLE TEST CRAM

Braindumps CPC Downloads & CPC Reliable Test Cram